CURRENT AFFAIRS MCQS OF 6th & 7th MAY 2022

Q1. With reference to the film restoration project, consider the following statements:

1. Under National Film Heritage Mission, approximately 2,200 films will undergo restoration.
2. The process involves frame-to-frame digital and semi-automated manual picture and sound restoration from the best surviving source material.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

		A.	1 only
		B.	2 only
		C.	Both 1 and 2
		D.	Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation :

Union Minister of Information & Broadcasting announced that the World’s largest film restoration project under National Film Heritage Mission (NFHM) with a budget of Rs. 363 crores is awarded on 4th May 2022 by the Ministry.

• The restoration project now awarded is set to commence in full swing at National Film Archive of India (NFAI). The Minister was in Pune to attend the review meeting of the organization.
• Under National Film Heritage Mission, approximately 2,200 films will undergo restoration.
• The titles have been shortlisted by language wise committees consisting of filmmakers, documentary filmmakers, film historians, producers etc.
• Eminent film personalities such as Aparna Sen, Shriram Raghavan, Anjali Menon and Vetrimaaran were part of the committees.

Restoration Process

• The process involves frame-to-frame digital and semi-automated manual picture and sound restoration from the best surviving source material.
• The source negative/print will be scanned at 4K to .dpx files, which will be then digitally restored.
• The damages including scratches, dirt and abrasions in every frame of the picture negative will be cleaned during the restoration process.
• Hence both statements are correct.

 

Q2.The Union Home and Cooperation Minister recently inaugurated the Narmada, Sutlej and Cauvery Floating Border Outposts (BOP) on the Indo-Bangladesh border to protect the inaccessible areas of the Sundarbans. It has been built by:

		A.	Cochin Shipyard
		B.	Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders
		C.	Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers
		D.	Hindustan Shipyard

Explanation :

The Union Home and Cooperation Minister on his visit to West Bengal inaugurated the Narmada, Sutlej and Cauvery Floating Border Outposts (BOP) on the Indo-Bangladesh border to protect the inaccessible areas of the Sundarbans.

• Kochi Shipyard has built them. The cost of one BOP is Rs. 38 crore and it weighs around 53,000 metric tonnes.
• These floating BOPs are equipped with modern facilities and safety equipment, the front section of these BOPs are bullet proof, as well as arrangements have been made for plenty of food supplies and these BOPs can float with a DG set without refueling for a month.
• A BOP is accompanied by 6 small boats and it has adequate arrangements to prevent both infiltration and smuggling.
• Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

 

Q3.With reference to the National Family Health Survey (NFHS-5), consider the following statements:

1. The Total Fertility Rates (TFR), an average number of children per women, has further declined from 2.2 to 2.0 at the national level between NFHS-4 & 5.
2. Institutional Births have decreased substantially from 90 percent to 60 percent in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

		A.	1 only
		B.	2 only
		C.	Both 1 and 2
		D.	Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation :

Union Minister for Health and Family Welfare, Dr. Mansukh Mandaviya released the National Report of the fifth round of National Family Health Survey (NFHS-5).

Key results from NFHS-5 National Report:

• The Total Fertility Rates (TFR), an average number of children per women, has further declined from 2.2 to 2.0 at the national level between NFHS-4 & 5.
• There are only five States in India, which are above replacement level of fertility of 2.1. They are Bihar (2.98), Meghalaya (2.91), Uttar Pradesh (2.35), Jharkhand (2.26) Manipur (2.17).
• Overall Contraceptive Prevalence Rate (CPR) has increased substantially from 54% to 67% in the country.
• Institutional Births have increased substantially from 79 percent to 89 percent in India.
• The level of stunting among children under 5 years has marginally declined from 38 to 36 percent for India since the last four years.

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

 

Q4.With reference to the Delimitation Commission of J&K, consider the following statements:

1. It was headed by Justice Ranjana Prakash Desai.
2. The delimiting of the Assembly and Parliamentary Constituencies in the UT of Jammu and Kashmir is on the basis of 2001 Census.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

		A.	1 only
		B.	2 only
		C.	Both 1 and 2
		D.	Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation :

The Delimitation Commission headed by Justice Ranjana Prakash Desai, (a retired Judge of the Supreme Court of India) released the Delimitation Order for the Union Territory of Jammu & Kashmir.

As per the final Delimitation Order, the following will come into effect from the date to be notified by the Central Government:

• Out of the 90 Assembly Constituencies (ACs) in the region, 43 will be part of Jammu region and 47 for Kashmir region keeping in view the provisions of Section 9(1)(a) of the Delimitation Act, 2002 and Section 60(2)(b) of Jammu & Kashmir Reorganization Act, 2019.
• 9 ACs have been reserved for STs, out of which,6 are in Jammu region and 3 ACs in the Valley.
• There are five Parliamentary Constituencies in the region. Each Parliamentary Constituency will have equal number of 18 Assembly Constituencies each.
• Names of some ACs have also been changed keeping in view the demand of local representatives.
• The Delimitation Commission was entrusted with the work of delimiting the Assembly and Parliamentary Constituencies in the UT of Jammu and Kashmir on the basis of 2011 Census and in accordance with the provisions of Part-V of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 (34 of 2019) and the provisions of Delimitation Act, 2002(33 of 2002).

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

 

Q5.With reference to the United Nations’ World Food Programme (WFP), consider the following statements:

1. It is the world’s largest humanitarian organization addressing hunger and promoting food security.
2. It’s headquarter is located in Paris.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

		A.	1 only
		B.	2 only
		C.	Both 1 and 2
		D.	Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation :

The United Nations’ World Food Programme (WFP) has said that it is in discussions with India on procurement of wheat as several countries face food security challenges amid the Ukraine war.

• India’s wheat production stood at 109.59 million tonnes in the 2020-21 crop year (July-June).
• The World Food Programme launched the 2022 Global Report on Food Crises recently in which UN Secretary General Antonio Guterres said that the war in Ukraine is “supercharging” a three-dimensional crisis – food, energy and finance — with devastating impacts on the world’s most vulnerable people, countries and economies.
• What is it? The World Food Programme (WFP) is the food-assistance branch of the United Nations and the world’s largest humanitarian organization addressing hunger and promoting food security.
• HQ: 
• History: The WFP was formally established in 1963 by the FAO and the United Nations General Assembly. 

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

 

Q6.Naini coal block, recently seen in news, is located in:

		A.	Odisha
		B.	Tamil Nadu
		C.	Goa
		D.	Gujarat

Explanation :

The Union Coal Ministry has sought to rush through the forest diversion process for proposed opencast coal mining in Angul district of Odisha which would require the felling of more than one lakh standing trees in a reserve forest and cause disturbance to the elephant herds.

• Singareni Collieries Company Limited (SCCL), a joint venture company of the Government of India and Telangana, has proposed to mine coal at the Naini mine in Chhendipada tahasli of the district.
• The total requirement of land for the project is 912.799 hectares, of which 643.095 hectares is reserve forestland and 140.18 hectares is village forestland. The remaining is non-forestland.
• The SCCL is waiting for environment and forest clearance before diverting 783.275 hectares of forestland for the coal field, which is in the south-eastern corner of the lower Gondwana basin within the Mahanadi Valley.
• 1,05,092 trees would have to be felled in the Chhendipda reserve forest, 1,087 in a revenue forest and 327 in non-forestland.
• Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

 

Q7.With reference to the Shigella, consider the following statements:

1. It is a bacterium that belongs to the enterobacter family.
2. It is a food- and water-borne infection, and can happen when someone consumes contaminated food.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

		A.	1 only
		B.	2 only
		C.	Both 1 and 2
		D.	Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation :

The Kerala health department identified Shigella bacteria as the cause for the food poisoning incident in Kasaragod, which claimed the life of a 16-year-old girl and led to 30-odd others being admitted to hospital.

• The presence of the bacteria was confirmed in the blood and faeces of people undergoing treatment after they consumed chicken shawarma from an eatery at Cheruvathur in Kasaragod.
• Shigella is a bacterium that belongs to the enterobacter family — a group of bacteria that reside in the intestine, not all of which cause disease in humans. It mainly affects the intestine and results in diarrhoea, sometimes bloody, stomach pain, and fever.
• Shigellosis is not a very common infection. It is a food- and water-borne infection, and can happen when someone consumes contaminated food — like in the case from Kerala — unwashed fruit or vegetables.
• The disease is easily spread by direct or indirect contact with the excrement of the patient. You can get the infection if you swim or take a bath in contaminated water.
• There are four types of Shigella bacteria that affect humans — Shigella sonnei, Shigella flexneri, Shigella boydii, and Shigella dysenteriae. The fourth type causes the most severe disease because of the toxin it produces.

 

Q8.With reference to the Direct Seeding of Rice (DSR), consider the following statements:

1. DSR technique can help save 15% to 20% water.
2. With DSR, paddy seeds are sown directly with machine.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

		A.	1 only
		B.	2 only
		C.	Both 1 and 2
		D.	Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation :

The Punjab government recently announced Rs 1,500 incentive per acre for farmers opting for Direct Seeding of Rice (DSR), which is known for saving water.

• With DSR, paddy seeds are sown directly with machine.
• With DSR technique, which is called ‘tar-wattar DSR’ (good soil moisture), farmers must sow paddy only after pre-sowing (rauni) irrigation and not in dry fields. Further, the field should be laser levelled.

Benefits:

• DSR technique can help save 15% to 20% water.
• DSR offers avenues for ground water recharge as it prevent the development of hard crust just beneath the plough layer due to puddled transplanting and it matures 7-10 days earlier than puddle transplanted crop, therefore giving more time for management of paddy straw.
• DSR can solve labour shortage problem because as like the traditional method it does not require a paddy nursery and transplantion of 30 days old paddy nursery into the main puddled field.

Concerns:

• Suitability of soil is the most important factor as farmers must not sow it in the light textured soil as this technique is suitable for medium to heavy textured soils including sandy loam, loam, clay loam, and silt loam which accounts for around 80% area of the state.
• It should not be cultivated in sandy and loamy sand as these soils suffer from severe iron deficiency, and there is higher weed problem in it.
• Also, avoid direct seeding of rice in fields which are under crops others than rice (like cotton, maize, sugarcane) in previous years as DSR in these soils is likely to suffer more from iron deficiency and weed problems.

 

Q9.With reference to the India – France Bilateral relation, consider the following statements:

1. In 1998, India and France established a Strategic Partnership which has since emerged as a close and growing bilateral relationship.
2. In 2018, the two countries decided to create an annual defence dialogue at the Ministerial level, the first of which was held in October 2018.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

		A.	1 only
		B.	2 only
		C.	Both 1 and 2
		D.	Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation :

Prime Minister Modi paid an official visit to France on his way back from the 2nd India-Nordic Summit in Copenhagen.

• In 1998, India and France established a Strategic Partnership which has since emerged as a close and growing bilateral relationship.
• The areas of defence & security cooperation, space cooperation and civil nuclear cooperation constitute the principal pillars of this Strategic Partnership.
• In addition, India and France are increasingly engaged in new areas of cooperation such as:
  • Indian Ocean region, climate change (including the International Solar Alliance) and sustainable growth & development, governance of cyberspace, among others.
• In 2018, the two countries decided to create an annual defence dialogue at the Ministerial level, the first of which was held in October 2018.
• The three services also have regular defence exercises; viz. Exercise Shakti (Army), Exercise Varuna (Navy) and Exercise Garuda (Air Force).
• Hence both statements are correct.

Q10.With reference to the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI), consider the following statements:

1. It is a statutory body under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006.
2.  It comprises of a Chairperson and fifty-two members.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

		A.	1 only
		B.	2 only
		C.	Both 1 and 2
		D.	Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation :

The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) had recently proposed to introduce ‘Health Start Rating’ (HSR) to check how healthy the packaged food items are.

• The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India is a statutory body under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006.
• Objectives:
  • To lay down science-based standards for articles of food
  • To regulate manufacture, storage, distribution, import and sale of food
  • To facilitate safety of food
• Composition:
  • The FSSAI comprises of a Chairperson and twenty-two members out of which one – third are to be women.
  • The Chairperson of FSSAI is appointed by the Central Government.
  • The Food Authority is assisted by Scientific Committees and Panels in setting standards and the Central Advisory Committee in coordinating with enforcement agencies.
  • Concerned Ministry: Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
  • Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Q11.With reference to the UN humanitarian corridors, consider the following statements:

1. They are demilitarized zones, in a specific area and for a specific time and both sides of an armed conflict agree to them.
2. In most cases, humanitarian corridors are negotiated by the United Nations and sometimes they’re also set up by local groups.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

		A.	1 only
		B.	2 only
		C.	Both 1 and 2
		D.	Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation :

The United Nations considers humanitarian corridors to be one of several possible forms of a temporary pause of armed conflict.

• They are demilitarized zones, in a specific area and for a specific time — and both sides of an armed conflict agree to them.
• Via these corridors, either food and medical aid can be brought to areas of conflict, or civilians can be evacuated.
• The corridors are necessary when cities are under siege and the population is cut off from basic food supplies, electricity and water.
• In cases where a humanitarian catastrophe unfolds because the international law of war is being violated — for example through large-scale bombing of civilian targets — humanitarian corridors can provide crucial relief.

Who sets them up?

• In most cases, humanitarian corridors are negotiated by the United Nations. Sometimes they’re also set up by local groups.
• Since all sides need to agree to set up the corridors, there is a risk of military or political abuse. For example, the corridors can be used to smuggle weapons and fuel into besieged cities.
• On the other hand, they can also be used by UN observers, NGOs and journalists to gain access to contested areas where war crimes are being committed.
• Hence both statements are correct.

 

Q 12.With reference to the weapons being used in the Russian invasion of Ukraine, consider the following statements:

1. The Russian military has used warplanes and Kalibr (Caliber) cruise missiles to hit facilities throughout Ukraine.
2. Iskander missiles of Russia have a range of up to 5000 kilometers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

		A.	1 only
		B.	2 only
		C.	Both 1 and 2
		D.	Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation :

Here is a look at some of the weapons being used in the Russian invasion of Ukraine.

• The Russian military has used warplanes and Kalibr (Caliber) cruise missiles to hit facilities throughout the country. To hit key targets, the Russian military also has used Iskander missiles that have a range of up to 500 kilometers.
• The Soviet-designed Grad (Hail), Smerch (Tornado) and Uragan (Hurricane) multiple rocket launchers are designed to fire a salvo of powerful rockets to destroy concentrations of troops or military equipment.
• The Russian military also has a wide range of powerful Soviet-designed artillery units, which were bizarrely named after flowers, such as self-propelled 203-mm Peony and 152-mm Hyacinth and Acacia self-propelled howitzers.
• Ukrainian officials have accused Russia of using cluster munitions. Cluster bombs, rockets and artillery shells open in the air, releasing submunitions, or “bomblets,” that are dispersed over a large area and simultaneously hit multiple targets.
• The Ukrainian military has used Bayraktar drones supplied by Turkey before the conflict.

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

 

Q 13.With reference to the HANSA-NG, consider the following statements:

1. It was designed and developed by DRDO.
2. It is India’s first indigenous Flying Trainer.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

		A.	1 only
		B.	2 only
		C.	Both 1 and 2
		D.	Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation :

India’s first indigenous Flying Trainer HANSA-NG designed and developed by CSIR-National Aerospace Laboratories, Bangalore under the aegis of Council of Scientific and Industrial Research, has successfully completed the sea level trials at Puducherry from 19th February to 5th March, 2022.

• HANSA-NG is one of the most advanced flying trainer powered by Rotax Digital Control Engine with unique features like Just-In-Time Prepreg (JIPREG) Composite light weight Airframe, Glass Cockpit, Bubble Canopy with wide panoramic view, electrically operated flaps etc.
• CSIR-NAL further said that HANSA-NG is designed to meet the Indian flying club needs and it is an ideal aircraft for Commercial Pilot Licensing (CPL) due to its low cost and low fuel consumption. NAL has already received more than 80 nos. of LoIs (Letter of Intents) from various flying clubs.

Hence only statement 2 is correct.

 

Q 14. With reference to the Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI), consider the following statements:

1. It came into existence in 2016 for development and regulation of inland waterways for shipping and navigation.
2. Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly river system from Allahabad to Haldia was declared as National Waterway No.1.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

		A.	1 only
		B.	2 only
		C.	Both 1 and 2
		D.	Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation :

Union Minister of Ports, Shipping & Waterways and AYUSH received the maiden voyage of food-grains from Patna to Pandu via Bangladesh in Guwahati.

• National Waterways Act came into effect in 2016.
• It merged 5 existing National Waterway Act which had declared 5 National Waterways. Also, the National Waterways Act, 2016 proposed 106 additional National Waterways.
• For the regulation of these National Waterways, Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) was created in 1986.
• Currently, out of 111 waterways, 13 waterways are operational for shipping and navigation and cargo/passenger vessels are moving on them.
• National Waterway – I:
  • Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly river system from Allahabad to Haldia was declared as National Waterway No.1.
    It became operative from October 1986 after the formation of the IWAI.
  • States covered: Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, West Bengal.
  • Distance: 1620 kms

Hence only statement 2 is correct.

 

Q15.With reference to the Fusobacterium nucleatum, consider the following statements:

1. Researchers at ACTREC-Tata Memorial Centre have identified its presence in the oral tumours at a significantly higher burden than in the oral cavity of healthy individuals.
2. Oral cancer patients positive for Fusobacterium were found to be negative for Human Papillomavirus (HPV) infection.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

		A.	1 only
		B.	2 only
		C.	Both 1 and 2
		D.	Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation :

Researchers at ACTREC-Tata Memorial Centre have identified the presence of a bacteria, Fusobacterium nucleatum, in the oral tumours at a significantly higher burden than in the oral cavity of healthy individuals.

• Interestingly, Fusobacterium nucleatum is known to play a vital role in colorectal cancer, wherein its presence affects the spread of the disease and the patient’s response to chemotherapy. However, a similar role of Fusobacterium in oral cancer was not known earlier.
• The presence of the bacteria was found in Indian and Caucasian oral cancer patients, with a much higher incidence among the Indian patients.
• Moreover, oral cancer patients positive for Fusobacterium were found to be negative for Human Papillomavirus (HPV) infection, suggesting they are present in a mutually exclusive way.
• Hence both statements are correct.

 

Q16.Who among the following has been selected for the Boltzmann medal, awarded by the Commission on Statistical Physics (C3) of the International Union of Pure and Applied Physics?

		A.	Deepak Dhar
		B.	Tapan Misra
		C.	G. Madhavan Nair
		D.	K. Radhakrishnan

Explanation :

Deepak Dhar, physicist, from the Indian Institute of Science Education and Research, Pune, has been selected for the Boltzmann medal, awarded by the Commission on Statistical Physics (C3) of the International Union of Pure and Applied Physics.

• He has been chosen for this award for his contributions in the field of statistical physics, including universal long-time relaxation in disordered magnetic systems, exact solutions in percolation and cluster counting problems and definition of spectral dimension of fractals.
• He becomes the first Indian to win this award, which was initiated in 1975, with Nobel laureate (1982) K.G. Wilson being the first recipient.
• He shares the platform with American scientist John J. Hopfield who is known for his invention of an associative neural network, now named after him.
• The award consists of the gilded Boltzmann medal with the inscription of Ludwig Boltzmann, and the chosen two scientists will be presented the medals at the StatPhys28 conference to be held in Tokyo, 7-11 August, 2023.
• The medal, which honours outstanding achievements in the field of statistical physics, has been given to one or two persons, once in three years, in the last 47 years.
• It is given only once to a person and on the condition that that person has not won the Nobel prize so far.
• Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

 

Q17. With reference to the Artificial Intelligence (AI) in Judiciary, consider the following statements:

1. The Supreme Court of India has recently constituted the Artificial Intelligence Committee.
2. SUVAS is a language-learning application being used to translate judgments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

		A.	1 only
		B.	2 only
		C.	Both 1 and 2
		D.	Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation :

During the 2022 Budget session of Parliament, Law Minister Kiren Rijiju said that while implementing Phase 2 of the eCourts projects, under operation since 2015, a need was felt to adopt new, cutting-edge technologies of Machine Learning (ML) and Artificial Intelligence (AI) to increase the efficiency of the justice delivery system.

• To explore the use of AI in judicial domain, the Supreme Court of India has constituted the Artificial Intelligence Committee which has mainly identified application of AI technology in translation of judicial documents, legal research assistance and process automation.
• Several law firms are now keen on trying out new technologies for a quick reference on judicial precedents and pronouncements on cases with similar legal issues at stake.
• The Mumbai-based Riverus, a “legal tech” firm, has developed ML applications that peruse troves of cases, “understand” them, and parse cases that are similar in content — very much like a human expert would do — in a fraction of the time.

Present status in India

• Over the course of the COVID-19 pandemic, the use of technology for e-filing, and virtual hearings has seen a dramatic rise.
• From the beginning of the lockdown in 2020 until January 8 this year, the Supreme Court of India emerged as a global leader by conducting 1,81,909 virtual hearings.
• But the use of ML in India’s legal sphere has so far been restricted to automating back-end work, and is still a very long way from being used as a decision-making tool for the judiciary.
• SUVAS is a language-learning application being used to translate judgments, and SUPACE, which can draft a legal brief, comprise the initiatives being undertaken in the Indian judiciary as a part of incorporating ML-based applications.
• Hence both statements are correct.

 

Q 18.A study is titled ‘Democracy Report 2022: Autocratisation Changing Nature?’ is published by:

		A.	World Bank
		B.	IMF
		C.	World Economic Forum
		D.	None of the above

Explanation :

The V-Dem Institute at Sweden’s University of Gothenburg has come out with their annual democracy report. The study is titled ‘Democracy Report 2022: Autocratisation Changing Nature?’.

• The report classifies countries into four regime types based on their score in the Liberal Democratic Index (LDI): Liberal Democracy, Electoral Democracy, Electoral Autocracy, and Closed Autocracy.
• It classifies India as an electoral autocracy ranking it 93rd on the LDI, out of 179 countries.
• The level of democracy enjoyed by the average global citizen in 2021 is down to 1989 levels, with the democratic gains of the post-Cold War period eroding rapidly in the last few years.
• More than twice as many countries (32) are undergoing autocratisation as are witnessing democratisation (15).
• Noting that India is one of the top ten ‘autocratisers’ in the world, the V-Dem (Varieties of Democracy) report classifies India as an autocracy (‘electoral autocracy’) rather than a democracy, ranking it 93rd on the liberal democracy index, out of 179 countries.
• One of the biggest drivers of autocratisation is “toxic polarisation”, a dominant trend in 40 countries, as opposed to 5 countries that showed rising polarisation in 2011.
• Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

 

Q19.With reference to the Central Industrial Security Force (CISF), consider the following statements:

1. It is governed by the Union Ministry of Home Affairs.
2. Its headquarters are at Mumbai.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

		A.	1 only
		B.	2 only
		C.	Both 1 and 2
		D.	Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation :

Union Home Minister Amit Shah pitched for a “hybrid” security model where the CISF could train and certify private security agencies so that they can take over the task of efficiently guarding various kinds of industrial and manufacturing units in the country. He was speaking at the 53rd Raising Day celebrations of the CISF.

• The Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) is one of the Central Armed Police Forces in India.
• The CISF is governed by the Union Ministry of Home Affairs, and its headquarters are at New Delhi.
• It was set up under an Act of the Parliament of India in 1969. CISF was subsequently made an armed force of India by another Act of Parliament passed in 1983.

Mandate

• It which works to provide security cover to over 300 industrial units, government infrastructure projects and facilities and establishments located all over India.
• Among its duties are guarding sensitive governmental buildings, the Delhi Metro, and providing airport security.
• CISF also provides consultancy services to private industries as well as other organisations within the Indian government. The scope of CISF’s consulting practice includes security consulting and fire protection consulting.
• It also plays a major role in Disaster Management. The CISF has a ‘Fire Wing’ which helps during fire accidents in Industries where the CISF is on guard.

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

 

Q20.Bandipur Tiger Reserve is located in:

 

		A.	Karnataka
		B.	Kerala
		C.	Tamil Nadu
		D.	Odisha

Explanation :

Preliminary findings of a study by the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) suggest that the density of tigers in the Sunderbans may have reached the carrying capacity of the mangrove forests, leading to frequent dispersals and a surge in human-wildlife conflict.

• Availability of food and space is the primary factor that determines how many tigers a forest can hold. And often, food is space for the tiger.
• In the Terai and Shivalik hills habitat — think Corbett tiger reserve, for example — 10-16 tigers can survive in 100 sq km. This slides to 7-11 tigers per 100 sq km in the reserves of north-central Western Ghats such as Bandipur, and to 6-10 tigers per 100 sq km in the dry deciduous forests, such as Kanha, of central India.
• The correlation between prey availability and tiger density is fairly established. There is even a simple linear regression explaining the relationship in the 2018 All-India Tiger report that put the carrying capacity in the Sunderbans “at around 4 tigers” per 100 sq km.
• A joint Indo-Bangla study in 2015 pegged the tiger density at 2.85 per 100 sq km after surveying eight blocks spanning 2,913 sq km across the international borders in the Sunderbans.
• The ongoing WII study indicates a density of 3-5 tigers in the Sunderbans. Given that 88 (86-90) tigers were estimated in 2,313 sq km of the Sundarbans in 2018, the population has been close to its so-called saturation point in the mangrove delta for some time.